Pulse Oximetry For Anaesthesia In Veterinary Practices Biology Essay

Pulse Oximetry For Anaesthesia In Veterinary Practices Biology Essay Pulse oximetry is one of the most commonly used pieces of monitoring equipment for anaesthesia in veterinary clinics today. Using a pulse oximeter allows us to monitor the percentage of haemoglobin (Hb) which is saturated with oxygen in a non-invasive way, allowing us to detect hypoxia before the patient is visibly cyanotic. The pulse oximeter consists of a probe attached to the patient (usually tongue, ear, or prepuce/vulva) which is linked to a computerised unit. The unit displays the percentage of Hb saturated with oxygen and a calculated heart rate, often with an audible signal for each pulse beat. Some units also have a graphical display of the blood flow past the probe called a plethysmograph. The pulse oximeter is able to determine the percentage of haemoglobin saturated with oxygen, commonly referred to as SpO2, by emitting red and infrared light from the light-emitting diodes (LEDs) on one side of the probe, which travels through the tissue (or reflects off depending on the probe type) to the photodiode on the other side of the probe. The machine analyses the light that reaches the photodiode and is able to detect subtle differences in the absorption of light by oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin. As these differ in absorption levels, the amount of red and infrared light absorbed by blood is related to haemoglobin oxygen saturation. The pulse oximeter can calculate the heart rate as it detects the pulsations as the volume of arterial blood in the tissue changes during the pulsative cycle, affecting light absorption. Adequate oxygenation is essential at all times for the body to perform its metabolic processes. The heart and brain are the bodys biggest consumers of oxygen, and if oxygenation levels decrease to critical levels, tissue damage occurs extremely quickly. Oxygen travels in the blood in two forms as unbound oxygen dissolved in plasma and as oxygen that is bound to the haemoglobin. In healthy patients breathing room air (which contains approximately 21% oxygen), oxygen dissolved in plasma equates to a very small percentage of the total oxygen in the blood (most texts list this as less than 1.5%), and the majority of blood oxygen is bound to haemoglobin (the remaining 98.5%). Measuring and monitoring oxygenation via pulse oximetry is very useful as it is monitoring the oxygen that is bound to haemoglobin, which is what is utilised by the body for normal cell function. Monitoring SpO2 however does not give you a good indication of how well the patient is ventilating (or breathing) for itself, especially during anaesthesia. A common mistake veterinary nurses make is to presume that if a patient has a SpO2 of 95% or higher under anaesthesia, then it is breathing adequately. We can get lulled into a false sense of security by having a good saturation figure when the patients respiration is completely inadequate. There are two main functions of respiration, one is getting oxygen out of the air and into the body, and the other is getting carbon dioxide out of the body and into the air. It possible for the patient to be getting enough oxygen into their body but not being able to get rid of enough carbon dioxide, so the SpO2 will show a good reading, but the patient may be hypercapnic (elevated levels of carbon dioxide). A capnograph should be used to measure end tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) levels and assess patient respiration. Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is a measurement of the levels of unbound oxygen in the plasma, and as discussed above, makes up a small percentage of the total oxygen in the blood. However PaO2 is important as it influences the saturation of haemoglobin because there must be an adequate level of dissolved oxygen in the blood to be available to bind to the haemoglobin. It is also important to understand that oxygen saturation and PaO2 are linked (when one goes up the other goes up and vice versa), however it does not have a direct linear correlation. As PaO2 decreases, the saturation level decreases slowly at first, but then decreases rapidly (see table **). In a patient which is breathing room air, the PaO2 is about 100mmHg, whereas for a patient breathing 100% oxygen (as for anaesthesia), their Pa02 is around 500mmHg and SpO2 is 100%. If this patient has a PaO2 drop to 100mmHg (a drop of 400mmHg) their SpO2 will drop to around 98%. If a further drop to 80mmHg occurs, their SpO2 will drop to around 95%. After this point, the SpO2 will start a more dramatic drop; if PaO2 drops to 60mmHg (another 20mmHg drop) will mean their SpO2 will be about 90%. A further drop of 20mmHg to a PaO2 of 40mmHg, the saturation will go from 90% to 75%. In practical application, when monitoring SpO2 in a normal healthy dog or cat, it should be 95-100%. Levels between 90-95% must be investigated, and critical values for oxygen saturation are below 90%.Simply, this means that the total oxygen available to the body decreases very little when partial pressures are above 80mmHg (Spo2 of 95%), however they decrease rapidly below this level, such as patients with lung disease, lack of oxygen, inadequate ventilation etc. Practically put, if you patient has a Sp02 of 90-95% this can indicate hypoxaemia and must be investigated as your patients haemoglobin is not fully saturated. If your patient has a Sp02 of less than 90%, then immediate therapy must be initiated oxygen if not receiving already, ventilation assistance etc. Sp02 of 85% or below for more than 30 seconds is considered an emergency. Placing the SpO2 Probe There are two main types of probes available on the market transmission or reflective. Transmission probes are the most common, and are usually mounted in a clip. These are generally used on the tongue, pinna, toe webbing, vulva or prepuce, or any other area that is thin and relatively hairless. Reflective probes have the light source and sensor side by side and are often taped to the base of the tail after it has been clipped, or covered and inserted into the oesophagus or rectum. When placing rectally, it is important to ensure that there are no faeces between the sensor and the rectum wall. Tongue, Cheeks, Prepuce, Vulva With tongues, start at the tip and work your way toward the base. Always direct the light downward, toward the floor; regardless of the animals position to reduce the effects of ambient light (ambient light will affect accuracy). For patient comfort, keep the tongue moist during longer procedures by applying a dampened gauze swab between the tongue and the probe. Do not have the gauze too thick as it can alter the reading by impeding the light transmission. To get a better reading on smaller tongues, bring the sides of the tongue up and pass the light through both layers. Do not fold the tip of the tongue, as you will restrict blood flow to the tongue. The same principals apply to placing the probe on the cheek, prepuce or vulva. Hock Moisten the hock area with isopropyl alcohol and/or water, and clip hair if needed. Pinna (Ear) The probe can be placed on the ear using the same technique as the tongue. Long haired animals may need a patch shaved first for the sensor to work correctly. Toes Probes can be placed on the metatarsals or metacarpals or in the webbing between them. Tail Place the reflective probe on the ventral base of the tail. The LEDs should be positioned dorsally. You may need to clip a small patch of hair, only large enough for the LEDs to lay on the skin. Be sure the skin is clean. Hold the sensor snugly against the tail and wrap with non-adhesive wrap. Poor SpO2 Readings When you detect a poor or low saturation reading, it is vital that you check the patient before you check the machine. Make sure your patient is stable by assessing all vital signs. Pulse oximeters need a strong regular pulse where the probe is located. If there is only a weak pulse, the pulse oximeter may display a reading but it might not be accurate. Most pulse oximeters have a pulse strength indicator as a bar graph and this should be used to ascertain whether you have correct placement. If the clip of the probe is too strong, this can also affect your reading by constricting the blood flow in front of the sensor. If this is the case, swapping the clip for a more gentler one is the best option, otherwise reposition the sensor to somewhere that can take the pressure (this will usually be thicker). An irregular signal caused by an irregular heartbeat or by the patient moving, shivering or fitting can cause problems for a pulse oximeter. If a patient moves too much, try relocating the probe to another location. Ambient light may be too bright for the sensor to operate correctly. Theatre lights can especially cause issues. Any sensor that is located in bright light should have a drape placed over it to reduce light contamination for more accurate readings. Do not place the sensor is on the same limb as a blood pressure cuff, the blood flow restriction from the cuff during measurement will interfere with the pulse oximeter sensor operating correctly. Other factors that can affect SpO2 readings include pigmented skin either normal pigment or jaundiced patients; peripheral vasoconstriction eg hypothermia, shock, drug-induced; or excess hair can cause interference and should be clipped away to allow the probe to sit directly against the skin. Wetting down with alcohol can also help with excess hair when you are not allowed to clip. Pulse Oximeter Maintenance Read your manufacturers instructions regarding the care of your pulse oximeter and probe. For infection control, you should always wipe the probe sensor and clip between patients. Most sensors can be surface-cleaned by wiping with 70% isopropyl alcohol. Do not immerse the sensor in liquid unless the manufacturer instructions state immersion is possible. After each cleaning and prior to each use, inspect the sensor and cable for fraying, cracking, breakage, or other damage. Inspect the clip for cracking or breakage, or loss of spring tension that would allow slippage or movement of the sensor from its proper position. If defects are noted, do not use the sensor or clip as it may provide an inaccurate reading. When used properly, pulse oximeters are an easy to use and readily available piece of monitoring equipment especially for anaesthesia, however it is important to note that they do not replace hands-on monitoring, and are not a valid method of assessing whether a patients respiration is adequate, as they provide a late indication of respiratory issues.

The History of Espn

$91, That’s all it cost to have ESPN incorporated back in 1978, when it was only run by three people, Bill Rasmussen, Scott Rasmussen, and Ed Eagan. Now if you take a look at ESPN today, you’ll see one of the world’s largest broadcast corporations. The History of ESPN is a long and pretty interesting story. Like stated above, the history of ESPN truly begins on September 7th, 1978, when the three founders paid $91 to have the company incorporated. After deciding to go with a 24-hour broadcasting schedule, ESPN debuted with Sports Center later that month, and then began to air a large variety of sports ranging from professional soft ball, to NCAA wrestling. Their fist dabble into a massive professional sport would be with the United States Football League, who’s games would be aired on the network. The league only survived for three years, but it gave the network the experience it needed when they gained partial rights to air Sunday Night football games, in 1987. Sunday Night Football would be on the network for nineteen years, till they switched to Monday nights. These are just the starting years to the massive behemoth that is ESPN. The 1990’s, a good a time period as any for ESPN. They gained rights to air MLB games, and also saw the founding of ESPN 2, in 1993. ESPN radio kicked of a year before ESPN 2, in 1992, making the company multi medial. 1996 saw the presence of Disney corperation, the parent company of ESPN, merge ABC sports and ESPN together. In 1997, ESPN started using SKYCAM to air it’s NHL games, and would soon put that innovative tech to use with the three other major sports leagues, MLB, NFL, and NBA. Company founders were long gone now, and things were looking really good for the future of the company.

Animal Hormone Quiz

ANIMAL ORGANIZATION AND HOMEOSTASIS QUIZ ? NOTE: THIS SECTION ALSO INCLUDES THE INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM _____1. Which gives the correct sequence of increasing organizational complexity? ?a) organ, tissue, cell, organ system, organism ? b) cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism c) cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism ? d) organism, tissue, cell, organ system, organ ? e) tissue, cell, organ system, organism, organ _____2. Which type of tissue lines body cavities and covers body surfaces? ?a) muscle tissue  Ã‚   b) nervous tissue  Ã‚   c) epithelial tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) connective tissue ____3. Which type of tissue is responsible for contractions that allow movement of organs or the entire body? ?a) muscle tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) nervous tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) epithelial tissue  Ã‚   d) connective tissue _____4. Which type of tissue is responsible for receiving, interpreting, and producing a response to stimuli? ?a) muscle tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) nervous tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) epithelial tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) connective tissue _____5. Which tissue includes bone and cartilage? ?a) muscle tissue  Ã‚   b) nervous tissue  Ã‚   c) epithelial tissue  Ã‚   d) connective tissue _____6. Which tissue includes the epidermis? a) muscle tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) nervous tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) epithelial tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) connective tissue _____7. Digestive juices cannot leak between the epithelial cells lining the lumen because of ? a) muscle tissue  Ã‚   b) nervous tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) epithelial tissue  Ã‚   d) connective tissue _____8. Which tissue includes blood and adipose tissue? ?a) muscle tissue  Ã‚   b) nervous tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) epithelial tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) connective tissue _____9. Which of the following statements is Not true about epithelial tissue? ?a) Flattened cells are found in squamous epithelium. ?b) Columnar epithelium is cubed-shaped with the nucleus near the upper surface of the cells. c) Simple epithelium has a single layer of cells in the tissue. ?d) Pseudostratified epithelium looks like it has multiple layers, but all the cells are attached to the same base. ?e) Epithelium lining the respiratory tract contains cilia that move particles along its surface. _____10. Which statement about epithelial tissue is Not true ? ?a) Stratified epithelium has numerous layers of cells. ?b) Epithelial tissue has one free surface and one surface attached to a basement membrane. ?c) Connections between epithelial cells include gap junctions, tight junctions, and spot ? esmosomes (adhesion junctions). ?d) Cells of the human epithelium contain a waterproof protein called keratin. ?e) Glandular epithelium that secretes its product into a duct forms the endocrine glands. _____11. Which is Not a function of connective tissue? ?a) line body surfaces and cavities ? b) bind and support body parts ? c) store energy in fat ? d) fill spaces ? e) produce blood cells _____12. Which statement about connective tissue is Not true? ?a) Connective tissue contains cells capable of differentiating into muscle and bone in animals. b) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, different kinds of fibers, and a nonliving matrix. ?c) Fibrous connective tissue includes bone and cartilage. ?d) Blood is a connective tissue that contains a fluid matrix. ?e) Adipose tissue provides insulation and padding, as in skin. _____13. Which is Not a structure seen in compact bone? ?a) concentric circles of organization ? b) Haversian canals containing blood vessels and nerves. ?c) osteocytes located within lacunae ? d) bony bars and plates with irregular spaces between them ? e) cytoplasmic extensions of bone cells in canaliculi _____14. Which statement is Not true about cartilage? ?a) Cartilage cells are located in small spaces called lacunae. ?b) The matrix of cartilage includes collagen and elastic fibers. ?c) The matrix of cartilage includes calcium salts. ?d) The original skeleton of the human embryo is made of cartilage. ?e) Adults have cartilage structures that include the nose, ear, and intervertebral disks. _____15. Which statement about blood is Not true? ?a) Erythrocytes carry oxygen. ?b) Platelets are not complete cells. ?c) Platelets are involved in blood clotting. ?d) Leukocytes are involved in the body's defense against infection. e) The fluid matrix, plasma, is made by the cells in the bloodstream. _____16. Which of the following statements about muscular tissue is Not true? ?a) Skeletal muscle fibers are extremely large cells with multiple nuclei. ?b) All striated muscle is under voluntary control. ?c) Smooth muscle lacks striations. ?d) Striated muscle has bands of actin and myosin filaments perpend icular to the length of the cell. ?e) Skeletal muscle fibers form as multiple precursor cells joined to produce a single cell. _____17. Which statement about heart tissue is Not correct? a) The heart is composed mainly of cardiac muscle tissue. ?b) Cardiac muscle is not striated. ?c) Cardiac cells have a single central nucleus. ?d) Cardiac muscle movement is involuntary. _____18. The heart is made of cardiac fibers that are bound together in one interconnected mass due to ? a) shared nuclei. ?b) tight junctions. ?c) adhesion junctions (desmosomes). ?d) gap junctions. ?e) intercalated disks made of both desmosomes and gap junctions. _____19. Which statement is Not true about nervous tissue? ?a) Cells in the nervous system that conduct electrical impulses are called neurons. b) Glial cells support and protect neurons. ?c) The dendrites carry electrical impulses away from the cell body of the neuron. ?d) Nerve fibers are long axons and dendrites bound by connective tissues to form nerv es. ?e) Glial cells may provide neurons with nutrients or keep them free of cellular debris. _____20. Which structure is Not a part of the skin? ?a) stratified squamous epithelium ? b) melanocytes ? c) dermis ? d) connective tissue ? e) subcutaneous tissue _____21. The general process of gaining a tan and then losing it is best explained by which of the following? a) Melanocytes form melanin in the dead top epidermis and it is soon washed off. ?b) Melanocytes form melanin in response to sunlight but blood flow slowly carries it away. ?c) Melanocytes form melanin in response to sunlight but then reabsorb it in the absence of light. ?d) Melanocytes in the dividing layer of the epidermis produce melanin, but then cells divide and ? half are constantly being pushed to the top to flatten and be washed off. ?e) Ultraviolet light damages the subcutaneous skin cells but these dark burned cells soon are ? dissolved and replaced by healing processes. _____22. If you wash your skin and hair several times a day, you will soon have dry skin that easily ? cracks and bleeds because the oils you have removed are necessary to keep skin supple. This oil is ? a) pili secreted by arrectors. ?b) lymph secreted by lymphatic ducts. ?c) sebum secreted by sweat glands. ?d) sebum secreted by sebaceous glands. ?e) salty sweat secreted by sweat glands. _____23. Possible indications of skin cancer are ? a) an open sore that will not heal. ?b) a wart that bleeds an scabs. ?c) irregular shaped mole with grey, white, or red skin around it. ?d) All of the above are correct. e) None of the above are correct. _____24. When discussing homeostasis in body temperature, it is Not true to say that the body responds to ? a) cold by contracting the arrector pili muscles. ?b) cold by contracting skeletal muscles in shivering. ?c) cold by rerouting blood away from the skin. ?d) heat by stimulating sweat release. ?e) heat by constricting the blood vessels in the skin. ____ _25. In which of the following structures would one most likely find smooth muscle? ?a) biceps muscle  Ã‚   b) heart  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) digestive tract  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) quadriceps muscle  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) gluteus maximus muscle _____26. One type of cell communicating mechanism allows materials to pass through cells and not between them. ?This is due to the nature of the cells being in direct contact with each other. An example would be found in the ? epithelial cells of the gut and is known as a(n) ? a) tight junction  Ã‚   b) gap junction  Ã‚   c) plasmodesmata  Ã‚   d) adhesion junction  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) desmosome _____27. Haversian canals and a matrix of crystals of calcium phosphate would be found in ? a) teeth  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) nails  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) hooves  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) bone  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) cartilage _____28. Cuboidal epithelium would be found ? a) in the walls of the heart. b) in the knees and other joints as well as in the nose and tracheal rings. ?c) on the surface of the skin. ?d) lining glands and kidney tubules, and covering the ovaries. ?e) in tendons and the sheath around voluntary muscles. _____29. An example of a positive feedback loop would be ? a) a rise in body temperatur e causing a dilation of blood vessels in the skin. ?b) the patellar reflex. ?c) the production of epithelial cells to heal a cut. ?d) blood clotting. ?e) constriction of the iris of the eye in bright light. _____30. Intercellular junctions are important in both plants and animals. Which of the ? ollowing is Not used by animals as junctions? ?a) tight junctions ? b) plasmodesmata ? c) desmosomes ? d) gap junctions ? e) communicating junctions _____31. Of the items listed, which is Not required for maintenance of life? ?a) water  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) food  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) carbon dioxide  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) pressure _____32. Homeostasis refers to ? a) changing external conditions. b) stable external conditions. ?c) changing internal conditions. d) stable internal conditions. _____33. Which of the following is Not one of the four basic types of body tissues? ?a) epithelial  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) connective  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) brain  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) muscle  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) nervous ____34. A basement membrane occurs between ? a) muscle and nerve tissue. b) epithelial and connective tissue. ?c) connective tissue and muscle tissue  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) brain and nerve tissue. _____35. Epithelial tissue functions in ? a) secretion  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) absorption  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c)   protection  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d)   All of the above. _____36. The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is ? a) smooth  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) skeletal  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) cardiac  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) intercalated  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) None of these. _____37. Which of the following is Not a characteristic of nerve tissue? ?a) It is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. b) It contains cells that respond by transmitting impulses. ?c) Its intercellular spaces are filled with collagen. ?d) Functional cells are sensitive to changes in their surrounding. _____38. Permanent wrinkling of skin is usually due to changes caused by excessive exposure to ? a) water  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) sunlight  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) dry air  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d)   heat _____39. Which of the following cell types are least likely to reproduce? ?a) endothelial cells that line the digestive tract. b) fibroblasts of connective tissue. ?c) skeletal muscle cells. d)   red bone marrow cells. _____40. The subcutaneous layer is located ? a) above the epidermis. b) between the epidermis and dermis. ?c) within the dermis. d) beneath the dermis. _____41. Which of the following is Not correct concerning the skin? ?a) The dermis is usually thicker than the epidermis. ?b) The epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium. ?c) The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and epidermis. ?d) The dermis contains smooth muscle and nerve tissue. _____42. Exocrine sweat glands ? a) are most common in the armpits and groin. ?b) respond primarily to elevated body temperature. c) respond primarily to emotional stress. ?d) usually are associated with hair follicles. _____43. Acne is a disorder involving the ? a) sweat glands   b) hair follicles  Ã‚   c) sebaceous glands  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) apocrine glands  Ã‚   e) endocrine glands _____44. Skin cells play an important role in the production of ? a) vitamin A  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) vitamin B  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) vitamin C  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) vit amin D  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) vitamin E _____45. The largest organ of the human body is the ? a) brain  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) liver  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) stomach  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) skin  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) lungs _____46. Keratin ? a) is a waterproof protein. b) fills dead cells in the dermis. c) is a skin pigment. d) All of the above are true. _____47. The dermis ? a) covers the epidermis. b) produces melanin. ?c) contains nervous tissue and blood vessels. d) consists mostly of dead cells. _____48. Which of the following is secreted by sebaceous glands in the skin? ?a) melanin  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) sebum  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) keratin  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) sweat _____49. Hair and nails are composed primarily of ? a) sebum  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) keratin  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) melanin  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) glands  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   e) living cells _____50. Hair color and skin color are determined by ? a) keratin  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   b) sebum  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   c) melanin  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   d) glands

Understanding the Ninth Amendments Effect and History

The Ninth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution attempts to ensure that certain rights — while not specifically listed as being granted to the American people in the other sections of the Bill of Rights — should not be violated. The complete text of the Ninth Amendment states: â€Å"The enumeration in the Constitution of certain rights shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.† Over the years, the federal courts have interpreted the Ninth Amendment as confirming the existence of such implied or â€Å"unenumerated† rights outside those expressly protected by the Bill of Rights. Today, the Amendment is often cited in legal attempts to prevent the federal government from expanding the powers of Congress specifically granted to it under Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution. The Ninth Amendment, included as part of the original 12 provisions of the Bill of Rights, was submitted to the states on September 5, 1789, and was ratified on December 15, 1791. Why This Amendment Exists When the then proposed U.S. Constitution was submitted to the states in 1787, it was still strongly opposed by the Anti-Federalist Party, Led by Patrick Henry. One of their main objection to the Constitution as submitted was its omission of a list of rights specifically granted to the people — a â€Å"bill of rights.† However, the Federalist Party, led by James Madison and Thomas Jefferson, contended that it would be impossible for such a bill of rights to list all conceivable rights, and that a partial list would be dangerous because some might claim that because a given right was not specifically listed as protected, the government had the power to limit or even deny it. In an attempt to resolve the debate, the Virginia Ratifying Convention proposed a compromise in the form of a constitutional amendment stating that any future amendments limiting the powers of Congress should not be taken as justification for expanding those powers. This proposal led to the creation of the Ninth Amendment. Practical Effect Of all the amendments in the Bill of Rights, none is stranger or harder to interpret than the Ninth. At the time it was proposed, there was no mechanism by which the Bill of Rights could be enforced. The Supreme Court had not yet established the power to strike down unconstitutional legislation, and it was not widely expected to. The Bill of Rights was, in other words, unenforceable. So what would an enforceable Ninth Amendment look like? Strict Constructionism and the Ninth Amendment There are multiple schools of thought on this issue. Supreme Court justices who belong to the strict constructionist school of interpretation essentially say that the Ninth Amendment is too vague to have any binding authority. They push it aside as a historical curiosity, in much the same way that more modernist justices sometimes push the Second Amendment aside. Implicit Rights At the  Supreme Court level,  most justices do believe that the Ninth Amendment has binding authority, and they use it to protect implicit rights hinted at but not explicated elsewhere in the Constitution. Implicit rights include both the right to privacy outlined in  the landmark 1965 Supreme Court case of  Griswold v. Connecticut, but also basic unspecified rights such as the right to travel and the right to the presumption of innocence until proven guilty.   Writing in the Court’s majority opinion Justice William O. Douglas stated that â€Å"specific guarantees in the Bill of Rights have penumbras, formed by emanations from those guarantees that help give them life and substance.† In a lengthy concurrence, Justice Arthur Goldberg added, â€Å"The language and history of the Ninth Amendment reveal that the Framers of the Constitution believed that there are additional fundamental rights, protected from governmental infringement, which exist alongside those fundamental rights specifically mentioned in the first eight constitutional amendments.† Updated by Robert Longley